# Probabilistic Foundations of Econometrics, part 1

In a series of posts, I wanted to get into details of the history and foundations of econometric and machine learning models. It will be some sort of online version of our joint paper with Emmanuel Flachaire and Antoine Ly, Econometrics and Machine Learning (initially writen in French), that will actually appear soon in the journal Economics and Statistics. This is the first one…

The importance of probabilistic models in economics is rooted in Working’s (1927) questions and the attempts to answer them in Tinbergen’s two volumes (1939). The latter have subsequently generated a great deal of work, as recalled by Duo (1993) in his book on the foundations of econometrics, and more particularly in the first chapter “The Probability Foundations of Econometrics”. It should be recalled that Trygve Haavelmo was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics in 1989 for his “clarification of the foundations of the probabilistic theory of econometrics”. Because as Haavelmo (1944) (initiating a profound change in econometric theory in the 1930s, as recalled in Morgan’s Chapter 8 (1990)) showed, econometrics is fundamentally based on a probabilistic model, for two main reasons. First, the use of statistical quantities (or “measures”) such as means, standard errors and correlation coefficients for inferential purposes can only be justified if the process generating the data can be expressed in terms of a probabilistic model. Second, the probability approach is relatively general, and is particularly well suited to the analysis of “dependent” and “non-homogeneous” observations, as they are often found on economic data.We will then assume that there is a probabilistic space $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mathbb{P})$ such that observations $(y_i,\mathbf{x}_i)$ are seen as realizations of random variables $(Y_i, \mathbf{X}_i)$. In practice, however, we are not very interested in the joint law of the couple $(Y, \mathbf{X})$ : the law of $\mathbf{X}$ is unknown, and it is the law of Y conditional on $\mathbf{X}$ that will be interested in. In the following, we will note $x$ a single observation, $\mathbf{x}$ a vector of observations, $X$ a random variable, and $\mathbf{X}$ a random vector. Abusively, $\mathbf{X}$ may also designate the matrix of individual observations (denoted $\mathbf{x}_i$), depending on the context.

## Foundations of mathematical statistics

As recalled in Vapnik’s (1998) introduction, inference in parametric statistics is based on the following belief: the statistician knows the problem to be analyzed well, in particular, he knows the physical law that generates the stochastic properties of the data, and the function to be found is written via a finite number of parameters[1]. To find these parameters, the maximum likelihood method is used. The purpose of the theory is to justify this approach (by discovering and describing its favorable properties). We will see that in learning, philosophy is very different, since we do not have a priori reliable information on the statistical law underlying the problem, nor even on the function we would like to approach (we will then propose methods to construct an approximation from the data at our disposal, as in (1998)). A “golden age” of parametric inference, from 1930 to 1960, laid the foundations for mathematical statistics, which can be found in all statistical textbooks, including today. As Vapnik (1998) states, the classical parametric paradigm is based on the following three beliefs:

1. To find a functional relationship from the data, the statistician is able to define a set of functions, linear in their parameters, that contain a good approximation of the desired function. The number of parameters describing this set is small.
2. The statistical law underlying the stochastic component of most real-life problems is the normal law. This belief has been supported by reference to the central limit theorem, which stipulates that under large conditions the sum of a large number of random variables is approximated by the normal law.
3. The maximum likelihood method is a good tool for estimating parameters.

In this section we will come back to the construction of the econometric paradigm, directly inspired by that of classical inferential statistics.

## Conditional laws and likelihood

Linear econometrics has been constructed under the assumption of individual data, which amounts to assuming independent variables $(Y_i, \mathbf{X}_i)$ (if it is possible to imagine temporal observations – then we would have a process $(Y_t, \mathbf{X}_t)$ – but we will not discuss time series here). More precisely, we will assume that, conditionally to the explanatory variables $\mathbf{X}_i$, the variables $Y_i$ are independent. We will also assume that these conditional laws remain in the same parametric family, but that the parameter is a function of $\mathbf{x}$. In the Gaussian linear model it is assumed that: $$(Y\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})\overset{\mathcal{L}}{\sim}\mathcal{N}(\mu(\mathbf{x}),\sigma^2)~~~~ (1)$$where $\mu(\mathbf{x})=\beta_0+\mathbf{x}^T\mathbf{\beta}$ and $\mathbf{\beta}\in\mathbb{R}^{p}$.

It is usually called a ‘linear’ model since $\mathbb{E}[Y\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}]=\beta_0+\mathbf{x}^T\mathbf{\beta}$ is a linear combination of covariates[2]. It is said to be a homoscedastic model if $Var[Y|\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}]=\sigma^2$, where $\sigma^2$ is a positive constant. To estimate the parameters, the traditional approach is to use the Maximum Likelihood estimator, as initially suggested by Ronald Fisher. In the case of the Gaussian linear model, log-likelihood is written:  $$\log\mathcal{L}(\beta_0, \mathbf{\beta},\sigma^2\vert \mathbf{y},\mathbf{x}) = -\frac{n}{2}\log[2\pi\sigma^2] - \frac{1}{2\sigma^2}\sum_{i=1}^n (y_i-\beta_0-\mathbf{x}_i^T\mathbf{\beta})^2$$Note that the term on the right, measuring a distance between the data and the model, will be interpreted as deviance in generalized linear models. Then we will set: $$(\widehat{\beta}_0,\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}},\widehat{\sigma}^2)=\text{argmax}\left\lbrace\log\mathcal{L}(\beta_0, \mathbf{\beta},\sigma^2\vert \mathbf{y},\mathbf{x})\right\rbrace$$The maximum likelihood estimator is obtained by minimizing the sum of the error squares (the so-called “least squares” estimator) that we will find in the “machine learning” approach.

The first order conditions allow to find the normal equations, whose matrix writing is $\mathbf{X}^T[\mathbf{y}-\mathbf{X}\mathbf{\beta}]=\mathbf{0}$, which can also be written $(\mathbf{X}^T \mathbf{X})\mathbf{\beta}=\mathbf{X}^T \mathbf{y}$. If $\mathbf{X}$ is a full (column) rank matrix, then we find the classical estimator:$$\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}}=(\mathbf{X}^T\mathbf{X})^{-1}\mathbf{X}^T\mathbf{y}=\mathbf{\beta}+(\mathbf{X}^T\mathbf{X})^{-1}\mathbf{X}^{-1}\mathbf{\varepsilon}~~~(2)$$using residual-based writing (as often in econometrics), $y=\mathbf{x}^T\mathbf{\beta}+\varepsilon$. Gauss Markov’s theorem ensures that this estimator is the unbiased linear estimator with minimum variance. It can then be shown that $\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}}\sim\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{\beta},\sigma^2(\mathbf{X}^T\mathbf{X})^{-1})$, and in particular, if we simply need the first two moments : $$\mathbb{E}[\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}}]=\mathbf{\beta}~~~Var[\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}}]=\sigma^2 [\mathbf{X}^T\mathbf{X}]^{-1}$$In fact, the normality hypothesis makes it possible to make a link with mathematical statistics, but it is possible to construct this estimator given by equation (2) without that Gaussian assumption. Hence, if we assume that $Y|\mathbf{X}$ has the same distribution as $\mathbf{x}^T\mathbf{\beta}+\varepsilon$, where $\mathbb{E}[\varepsilon]=0$, $Var[\varepsilon]=\sigma^2$ and $Cov[X_j,\varepsilon]=0$ for all $j$, then $\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}}$ is an unbiased estimator of $\mathbf{\beta}$ with smallest variance[3] among unbiased linear estimators. Furthermore, if we cannot get normality at finite distance, asymptotically this estimator is Gaussian, with $$\sqrt{n}(\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}}-\mathbf{\beta})\overset{\mathcal{L}}{\rightarrow}\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{0},\mathbf{\Sigma})$$as $n\rightarrow\infty$, for some matrix $\mathbf{\Sigma}$.
The condition of having a full rank $\mathbf{X}$ matrix can be (numerically) strong in large dimensions. If it is not satisfied, $(\mathbf{X}^T \mathbf{X})^{-1}\mathbf{X}^T$ does not exist. If $\mathbb{I}$ denotes the identity matrix, however, it should be noted that $(\mathbf{X}^T \mathbf{X}+\lambda\mathbb{I})^{-1}\mathbf{X}^T$ still exists, whatever $\lambda>0$. This estimator is called the ridge estimator of level \lambda (introduced in the 1960s by Hoerl (1962), and associated with a regularization studied by Tikhonov (1963)). This estimator naturally appears in a Bayesian econometric context.

## Residuals

It is not uncommon to introduce the linear model from the distribution of the residuals, as we mentioned earlier. Also, equation (1) is written as often: $$y_i=\beta_0+\mathbf{x}_i^T\mathbf{\beta}+\varepsilon_i~~~~(3)$$where $\varepsilon_i$’s are realizations of independent and identically distributed random variables (i.i.d.) from some $\mathcal{N}(0,\sigma^2)$ distribution. With a vector notation, we will write $\mathbf{\varepsilon}\overset{\mathcal{L}}{\sim}\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{0},\sigma^2\mathbb{I})$. The estimated residuals are defined as: $$\widehat{\varepsilon}_i =y_i-[\widehat{\beta}_0+\mathbf{x}_i^T\widehat{\mathbf{\beta}}]$$ Those (estimated) residuals are basic tools for diagnosing the relevance of the model.

An extension of the model described by equation (1) has been proposed to take into account a possible heteroscedastic character: $$(Y\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})\overset{\mathcal{L}}{\sim}\mathcal{N}(\mu(\mathbf{x}),\sigma^2(\mathbf{x}))$$where $\sigma^2(\mathbf{x})$ is a positive function of the explanatory variables. This model can be rewritten as: $$y_i=\beta_0+\mathbf{x}_i^T\mathbf{\beta}+\sigma^2(\mathbf{x}_i)\cdot\varepsilon_i$$where residuals are always i.i.d., with unit variance, $$\varepsilon_i=\frac{y_i-[\beta_0+\mathbf{x}_i^T\mathbf{\beta}]}{\sigma(\mathbf{x}_i)}$$ While residuals based equations are popular in linear econometrics (when the dependent variable is continuous), it is no longer popular in counting models, or logistic regression.

However, writing using an error term (as in equation (3)) raises many questions about the representation of an economic relationship between two quantities. For example, it can be assumed that there is a relationship (linear to begin with) between the quantities of a traded good, $q$ and its price $p$. This allows us to imagine a supply equation$$q_i=\beta_0+\beta_1 p_i+u_i$$($u_i$ being an error term) where the quantity sold depends on the price, but in an equally legitimate way, one can imagine that the price depends on the quantity produced (what one could call a demand equation), $$p_i=\alpha_0+\alpha_1 q_i+v_i$$($v_i$ denoting another error term). Historically, the error term in equation (3) could be interpreted as an idiosyncratic error on the variable $y$, the so-called explanatory variables being assumed to be fixed, but this interpretation often makes the link between an economic relationship and a complicated economic model difficult, the economic theory speaking abstractly about a relationship between a magnitude, the econometric model imposing a specific shape (what magnitude is $y$ and what magnitude is $x$) as shown in more detail in Morgan (1990) Chapter 7.

(references mentioned above are online here). To be continued…

[1] This approach can be compared to structural econometrics, as presented for example in Kean (2010).

[2] Here, we will try to distinguish $\beta_0$, the intercept, and the other parameters $\mathbf{\beta}$, since they are considered differently in many extensions (e.g. regularization). Nevertheless, in many expressions $\mathbf{\beta}$ will denote the joint vector $(\beta_0, \mathbf{\beta})$, for general formulas, to avoid too heavy notations.

[3] In the sense that the difference between variance matrices is a positive matrix.

# Convex Regression Model

This morning during the lecture on nonlinear regression, I mentioned (very) briefly the case of convex regression. Since I forgot to mention the codes in R, I will publish them here. Assume that $y_i=m(\mathbf{x}_i)+\varepsilon_i$ where $m:\mathbb{R}^d\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is some convex function.

Then $m$ is convex if and only if $\forall\mathbf{x}_1,\mathbf{x}_2\in\mathbb{R}^d$, $\forall t\in[0,1]$, $$m(t\mathbf{x}_1+[1-t]\mathbf{x}_2) \leq tm(\mathbf{x}_1)+[1-t]m(\mathbf{x}_2)$$Hidreth (1954) proved that if$$m^\star=\underset{m \text{ convex}}{\text{argmin}}\left\lbrace\sum_{i=1}^n \big(y_i-m(\mathbf{x_i})\big)^2\right\rbrace$$then $\mathbf{\theta}^\star=(m^\star(\mathbf{x_1}),\cdots,m^\star(\mathbf{x_n}))$ is unique.

Let $\mathbf{y}=\mathbf{\theta}+\mathbf{\varepsilon}$, then $$\mathbf{\theta}^\star=\underset{\mathbf{\theta}\in \mathcal{K}}{\text{argmin}}\left\lbrace\sum_{i=1}^n \big(y_i-\theta_i)\big)^2\right\rbrace$$where$$\mathcal{K}=\{\mathbf{\theta}\in\mathbb{R}^n:\exists m\text{ convex },m(\mathbf{x}_i)=\theta_i\}$$. I.e. $\mathbf{\theta}^\star$ is the projection of $\mathbf{y}$ onto the (closed) convex cone $\mathcal{K}$. The projection theorem gives existence and unicity.

For convenience, in the application, we will consider the real-valued case, $m:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, i.e. $y_i=m(x_i)+\varepsilon_i$. Assume that observations are ordered $x_1\leq x_2\leq\cdots \leq x_n$. Here $$\mathcal{K}=\left\lbrace\mathbf{\theta}\in\mathbb{R}^n:\frac{\theta_2-\theta_1}{x_2-x_1}\leq \frac{\theta_3-\theta_2}{x_3-x_2}\leq \cdots \leq \frac{\theta_n-\theta_{n-1}}{x_n-x_{n-1}}\right\rbrace$$

Hence, quadratic program with $n-2$ linear constraints.

$m^\star$ is a piecewise linear function (interpolation of consecutive pairs $(x_i,\theta_i^\star)$).

If $m$ is differentiable, $m$ is convex if $$m(\mathbf{x})+ \nabla m(\mathbf{x})^{\text{T}}\cdot[\mathbf{y}-\mathbf{x}] \leq m(\mathbf{y})$$

More generally, if $m$ is convex, then there exists $\xi_{\mathbf{x}}\in\mathbb{R}^n$ such that $$m(\mathbf{x})+ \xi_{\mathbf{x}}^{\text{ T}}\cdot[\mathbf{y}-\mathbf{x}] \leq m(\mathbf{y})$$
$\xi_{\mathbf{x}}$ is a subgradient of $m$ at ${\mathbf{x}}$. And then $$\partial m(\mathbf{x})=\big\lbrace m(\mathbf{x})+ \xi^{\text{ T}}\cdot[\mathbf{y}-\mathbf{x}] \leq m(\mathbf{y}),\forall \mathbf{y}\in\mathbb{R}^n\big\rbrace$$

Hence, $\mathbf{\theta}^\star$ is solution of $$\text{argmin}\big\lbrace\|\mathbf{y}-\mathbf{\theta}\|^2\big\rbrace$$$$\text{subject to }\theta_i+\xi_i^{\text{ T}}[\mathbf{x}_j-\mathbf{x}_i]\leq\mathbf{\theta}_j,~\forall i,j$$ and $\xi_1,\cdots,\xi_n\in\mathbb{R}^n$. Now, to do it for real, use cobs package for constrained (b)splines regression,

library(cobs)

To get a convex regression, use

plot(cars) x = cars$speed y = cars$dist rc = conreg(x,y,convex=TRUE) lines(rc, col = 2)

Here we can get the values of the knots

rc   Call: conreg(x = x, y = y, convex = TRUE) Convex regression: From 19 separated x-values, using 5 inner knots, 7, 8, 9, 20, 23. RSS = 1356; R^2 = 0.8766; needed (5,0) iterations

and actually, if we use them in a linear-spline regression, we get the same output here

reg = lm(dist~bs(speed,degree=1,knots=c(4,7,8,9,,20,23,25)),data=cars) u = seq(4,25,by=.1) v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(speed=u)) lines(u,v,col="green")

Let us add vertical lines for the knots

abline(v=c(4,7,8,9,20,23,25),col="grey",lty=2)

# Classification from scratch, linear discrimination 8/8

Eighth post of our series on classification from scratch. The latest one was on the SVM, and today, I want to get back on very old stuff, with here also a linear separation of the space, using Fisher’s linear discriminent analysis.

## Bayes (naive) classifier

Consider the follwing naive classification rule$$m^\star(\mathbf{x})=\text{argmin}_y\{\mathbb{P}[Y=y\vert\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}]\}$$or$$m^\star(\mathbf{x})=\text{argmin}_y\left\{\frac{\mathbb{P}[\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}\vert Y=y]}{\mathbb{P}[\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}]}\right\}$$(where $\mathbb{P}[\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}]$ is the density in the continuous case).

In the case where $y$ takes two values, that will be standard $\{0,1\}$ here, one can rewrite the later as$$m^\star(\mathbf{x})=\begin{cases}1\text{ if }\mathbb{E}(Y\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})>\displaystyle{\frac{1}{2}}\\0\text{ otherwise}\end{cases}$$and the set$$\mathcal{D}_S =\left\{\mathbf{x},\mathbb{E}(Y\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})=\frac{1}{2}\right\}$$is called the decision boundary.

Assume that$$\mathbf{X}\vert Y=0\sim\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{\mu}_0,\mathbf{\Sigma})$$and$$\mathbf{X}\vert Y=1\sim\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{\mu}_1,\mathbf{\Sigma})$$then explicit expressions can be derived.$$m^\star(\mathbf{x})=\begin{cases}1\text{ if }r_1^2< r_0^2+2\displaystyle{\log\frac{\mathbb{P}(Y=1)}{\mathbb{P}(Y=0)}+\log\frac{\vert\mathbf{\Sigma}_0\vert}{\vert\mathbf{\Sigma}_1\vert}}\\0\text{ otherwise}\end{cases}$$where $r_y^2$ is the Manalahobis distance, $$r_y^2 = [\mathbf{X}-\mathbf{\mu}_y]^{\text{{T}}}\mathbf{\Sigma}_y^{-1}[\mathbf{X}-\mathbf{\mu}_y]$$

Let $\delta_y$be defined as$$\delta_y(\mathbf{x})=-\frac{1}{2}\log\vert\mathbf{\Sigma}_y\vert-\frac{1}{2}[{\color{blue}{\mathbf{x}}}-\mathbf{\mu}_y]^{\text{{T}}}\mathbf{\Sigma}_y^{-1}[{\color{blue}{\mathbf{x}}}-\mathbf{\mu}_y]+\log\mathbb{P}(Y=y)$$the decision boundary of this classifier is $$\{\mathbf{x}\text{ such that }\delta_0(\mathbf{x})=\delta_1(\mathbf{x})\}$$which is quadratic in ${\color{blue}{\mathbf{x}}}$. This is the quadratic discriminant analysis. This can be visualized bellow.

The decision boundary is here

But that can’t be the linear discriminant analysis, right? I mean, the frontier is not linear… Actually, in Fisher’s seminal paper, it was assumed that $\mathbf{\Sigma}_0=\mathbf{\Sigma}_1$.

In that case, actually, $$\delta_y(\mathbf{x})={\color{blue}{\mathbf{x}}}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\Sigma}^{-1}\mathbf{\mu}_y-\frac{1}{2}\mathbf{\mu}_y^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\Sigma}^{-1}\mathbf{\mu}_y+\log\mathbb{P}(Y=y)$$ and the decision frontier is now linear in ${\color{blue}{\mathbf{x}}}$. This is the linear discriminant analysis. This can be visualized bellow

Here the two samples have the same variance matrix and the frontier is

## Link with the logistic regression

Assume as previously that$$\mathbf{X}\vert Y=0\sim\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{\mu}_0,\mathbf{\Sigma})$$and$$\mathbf{X}\vert Y=1\sim\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{\mu}_1,\mathbf{\Sigma})$$then$$\log\frac{\mathbb{P}(Y=1\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})}{\mathbb{P}(Y=0\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})}$$is equal to $$\mathbf{x}^{\text{{T}}}\mathbf{\Sigma}^{-1}[\mathbf{\mu}_y]-\frac{1}{2}[\mathbf{\mu}_1-\mathbf{\mu}_0]^{\text{{T}}}\mathbf{\Sigma}^{-1}[\mathbf{\mu}_1-\mathbf{\mu}_0]+\log\frac{\mathbb{P}(Y=1)}{\mathbb{P}(Y=0)}$$which is linear in $\mathbf{x}$$$\log\frac{\mathbb{P}(Y=1\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})}{\mathbb{P}(Y=0\vert \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})}=\mathbf{x}^{\text{{T}}}\mathbf{\beta}$$Hence, when each groups have Gaussian distributions with identical variance matrix, then LDA and the logistic regression lead to the same classification rule.

Observe furthermore that the slope is proportional to $\mathbf{\Sigma}^{-1}[\mathbf{\mu}_1-\mathbf{\mu}_0]$, as stated in Fisher’s article. But to obtain such a relationship, he observe that the ratio of between and within variances (in the two groups) was$$\frac{\text{variance between}}{\text{variance within}}=\frac{[\mathbf{\omega}\mathbf{\mu}_1-\mathbf{\omega}\mathbf{\mu}_0]^2}{\mathbf{\omega}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\Sigma}_1\mathbf{\omega}+\mathbf{\omega}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\Sigma}_0\mathbf{\omega}}$$which is maximal when $\mathbf{\omega}$ is proportional to $\mathbf{\Sigma}^{-1}[\mathbf{\mu}_1-\mathbf{\mu}_0]$, when $\mathbf{\Sigma}_0=\mathbf{\Sigma}_1$.

## Homebrew linear discriminant analysis

To compute vector $\mathbf{\omega}$

m0 = apply(myocarde[myocarde$PRONO=="0",1:7],2,mean) m1 = apply(myocarde[myocarde$PRONO=="1",1:7],2,mean) Sigma = var(myocarde[,1:7]) omega = solve(Sigma)%*%(m1-m0) omega [,1] FRCAR -0.012909708542 INCAR 1.088582058796 INSYS -0.019390084344 PRDIA -0.025817110020 PAPUL 0.020441287970 PVENT -0.038298291091 REPUL -0.001371677757

For the constant – in the equation $\omega^T\mathbf{x}+b=0$ – if we have equiprobable probabilities, use

b = (t(m1)%*%solve(Sigma)%*%m1-t(m0)%*%solve(Sigma)%*%m0)/2

## Application (on the small dataset)

In order to visualize what’s going on, consider the small dataset, with only two covariates,

x = c(.4,.55,.65,.9,.1,.35,.5,.15,.2,.85) y = c(.85,.95,.8,.87,.5,.55,.5,.2,.1,.3) z = c(1,1,1,1,1,0,0,1,0,0) df = data.frame(x1=x,x2=y,y=as.factor(z)) m0 = apply(df[df$y=="0",1:2],2,mean) m1 = apply(df[df$y=="1",1:2],2,mean) Sigma = var(df[,1:2]) omega = solve(Sigma)%*%(m1-m0) omega [,1] x1 -2.640613174 x2 4.858705676

Using R regular function, we get

library(MASS) fit_lda = lda(y ~x1+x2 , data=df) fit_lda   Coefficients of linear discriminants: LD1 x1 -2.588389554 x2 4.762614663

which is the same coefficient as the one we got with our own code. For the constant, use

b = (t(m1)%*%solve(Sigma)%*%m1-t(m0)%*%solve(Sigma)%*%m0)/2

If we plot it, we get the red straight line

plot(df$x1,df$x2,pch=c(1,19)[1+(df$y=="1")]) abline(a=b/omega[2],b=-omega[1]/omega[2],col="red") As we can see (with the blue points), our red line intersects the middle of the segment of the two barycenters points(m0["x1"],m0["x2"],pch=4) points(m1["x1"],m1["x2"],pch=4) segments(m0["x1"],m0["x2"],m1["x1"],m1["x2"],col="blue") points(.5*m0["x1"]+.5*m1["x1"],.5*m0["x2"]+.5*m1["x2"],col="blue",pch=19) Of course, we can also use R function predlda = function(x,y) predict(fit_lda, data.frame(x1=x,x2=y))$class==1 vv=outer(vu,vu,predlda) contour(vu,vu,vv,add=TRUE,lwd=2,levels = .5)

One can also consider the quadratic discriminent analysis since it might be difficult to argue that $\mathbf{\Sigma}_0=\mathbf{\Sigma}_1$

fit_qda = qda(y ~x1+x2 , data=df)

The separation curve is here

plot(df$x1,df$x2,pch=19, col=c("blue","red")[1+(df$y=="1")]) predqda=function(x,y) predict(fit_qda, data.frame(x1=x,x2=y))$class==1 vv=outer(vu,vu,predlda) contour(vu,vu,vv,add=TRUE,lwd=2,levels = .5)

# Classification from scratch, logistic with splines 2/8

Today, second post of our series on classification from scratch, following the brief introduction on the logistic regression.

## Piecewise linear splines

To illustrate what’s going on, let us start with a “simple” regression (with only one explanatory variable). The underlying idea is natura non facit saltus, for “nature does not make jumps”, i.e. process governing equations for natural things are continuous. That seems to be a rather strong assumption, because we can assume that there is a fixed threshold to explain death. For instance, if patients die (for sure) if the “stroke index” exceeds a threshold, we might expect some discontinuity. Exceept that if that threshold is an heterogeneous (non-observable continuous) variable, then we get back to the continuity assumption.

The most simple model we can think of to extend the linear model we’ve seen in the previous post is to consider a piecewise linear function, with two parts : small values of $x$, and larger values of $x$. The most convenient way to do so is to use the positive part function $(x-s)_+$ which is the difference between $x$ and $s$ if that difference is positive, and $0$ otherwise. For instance $$\beta_1 x+\beta_2(x-s)_+$$ is the following piecewise linear function, continuous, with a “rupture” at knot $s$.

Observe also the following interpretation: for small values of $x$, there is a linear increase, with slope $\beta_1$, and for lager values of $x$, there is a linear decrease, with slope $\beta_1+\beta_2$. Hence, $\beta_2$ is interpreted as a change of the slope.

And of course, it is possible to consider more than one knot. The function to get the positive value is the following

pos = function(x,s) (x-s)*(x&gt;=s)

then we can use it direcly in our regression model

reg = glm(PRONO~INSYS+pos(INSYS,15)+ pos(INSYS,25),data=myocarde,family=binomial)

The output of the regression is here

summary(reg)   Coefficients: Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(&gt;|z|) (Intercept) -0.1109 3.2783 -0.034 0.9730 INSYS -0.1751 0.2526 -0.693 0.4883 pos(INSYS, 15) 0.7900 0.3745 2.109 0.0349 * pos(INSYS, 25) -0.5797 0.2903 -1.997 0.0458 *

Hence, the original slope, for very small values is not significant, but then, above 15, it become significantly positive. And above 25, there is a significant change again. We can plot it to see what’s going on

u = seq(5,55,length=201) v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,type="l") points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) abline(v=c(5,15,25,55),lty=2)

## Using bs() linear splines

Using the GAM function, things are slightly different. We will use here so called b-splines,

library(splines)

We can define spline functions with support $(5,55)$ and with knots $\{15,25\}$

clr6 = c("#1b9e77","#d95f02","#7570b3","#e7298a","#66a61e","#e6ab02") x = seq(0,60,by=.25) B = bs(x,knots=c(15,25),Boundary.knots=c(5,55),degre=1) matplot(x,B,type="l",lty=1,lwd=2,col=clr6)

as we can see, the functions defined here are different from the one before, but we still have (piecewise) linear functions on each segment $(5,15)$, $(15,25)$ and $(25,55)$. But linear combinations of those functions (the two sets of functions) will generate the same space. Said differently, if the interpretation of the output will be different, predictions should be the same

reg = glm(PRONO~bs(INSYS,knots=c(15,25), Boundary.knots=c(5,55),degre=1), data=myocarde,family=binomial) summary(reg)   Coefficients: Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(&gt;|z|) (Intercept) -0.9863 2.0555 -0.480 0.6314 bs(INSYS,..)1 -1.7507 2.5262 -0.693 0.4883 bs(INSYS,..)2 4.3989 2.0619 2.133 0.0329 * bs(INSYS,..)3 5.4572 5.4146 1.008 0.3135

Observe that there are three coefficients, as before, but again, the interpretation is here more complicated…

v=predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,ylim=0:1,type="l",col="red") points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) abline(v=c(5,15,25,55),lty=2)

Nevertheless, the prediction is the same… and that’s nice.

Let us go one step further… Can we have also the continuity of the derivative ? Yes, and that’s easy actually, considering parabolic functions. Instead of using a decomposition on $x,(x-s_1)_+$ and $(x-s_2)_+$ consider now a decomposition on $x,x^{\color{red}{2}},(x-s_1)^{\color{red}{2}}_+$ and $(x-s_2)^{\color{red}{2}}_+$.

 pos2 = function(x,s) (x-s)^2*(x&gt;=s) reg = glm(PRONO~poly(INSYS,2)+pos2(INSYS,15)+pos2(INSYS,25), data=myocarde,family=binomial) summary(reg)   Coefficients: Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(&gt;|z|) (Intercept) 29.9842 15.2368 1.968 0.0491 * poly(INSYS, 2)1 408.7851 202.4194 2.019 0.0434 * poly(INSYS, 2)2 199.1628 101.5892 1.960 0.0499 * pos2(INSYS, 15) -0.2281 0.1264 -1.805 0.0712 . pos2(INSYS, 25) 0.0439 0.0805 0.545 0.5855

As expected, there are here five coefficients: the intercept and two for the part on the left (three parameters for the parabolic function), and then two additional terms for the part in the center – here $(15,25)$ – and for the part on the right. Of course, for each portion, there is only one degree of freedom since we have a parabolic function (three coefficients) but two constraints (continuity, and continuity of the first order derivative).

On a graph, we get the following

v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,ylim=0:1,type="l",col="red",lwd=2,xlab="INSYS",ylab="") points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) abline(v=c(5,15,25,55),lty=2)

Of course, we can do the same with our R function. But as before, the basis of function is expressed here differently

 x = seq(0,60,by=.25) B=bs(x,knots=c(15,25),Boundary.knots=c(5,55),degre=2) matplot(x,B,type="l",xlab="INSYS",col=clr6)

If we run R code, we get

reg = glm(PRONO~bs(INSYS,knots=c(15,25), Boundary.knots=c(5,55),degre=2),data=myocarde, family=binomial) summary(reg)   Coefficients: Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(&gt;|z|) (Intercept) 7.186 5.261 1.366 0.1720 bs(INSYS, ..)1 -14.656 7.923 -1.850 0.0643 . bs(INSYS, ..)2 -5.692 4.638 -1.227 0.2198 bs(INSYS, ..)3 -2.454 8.780 -0.279 0.7799 bs(INSYS, ..)4 6.429 41.675 0.154 0.8774

But that’s not really a big deal since the prediction is exactly the same

v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,ylim=0:1,type="l",col="red") points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) abline(v=c(5,15,25,55),lty=2)

## Cubic splines

Last, but not least, we can reach the cubic splines. With our previous notions, we would consider a decomposition on (guess what) $x,x^2,x^{\color{red}{3}},(x-s_1)^{\color{red}{3}}_+,(x-s_2)^{\color{red}{3}}_+$, to get this time continuity, as well as continuity of the first two derivatives (and to get a very smooth function, since even variations will be smooth). If we use the bs function, the basis is the followin

B=bs(x,knots=c(15,25),Boundary.knots=c(5,55),degre=3) matplot(x,B,type="l",lwd=2,col=clr6,lty=1,ylim=c(-.2,1.2)) abline(v=c(5,15,25,55),lty=2)

and the prediction will now be

reg = glm(PRONO~bs(INSYS,knots=c(15,25), Boundary.knots=c(5,55),degre=3), data=myocarde,family=binomial) u = seq(5,55,length=201) v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,ylim=0:1,type="l",col="red",lwd=2) points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) abline(v=c(5,15,25,55),lty=2)

Two last things before concluding (for today), the location of the knots, and the extension to additive models.

## Location of knots

In many applications, we do not want to specify the location of the knots. We just want – say – three (intermediary) knots. This can be done using

reg = glm(PRONO~1+bs(INSYS,degree=1,df=4),data=myocarde,family=binomial)

We can actually get the locations of the knots by looking at

attr(reg$terms, "predvars")[[3]] bs(INSYS, degree = 1L, knots = c(15.8, 21.4, 27.15), Boundary.knots = c(8.7, 54), intercept = FALSE) which provides us with the location of the boundary knots (the minumun and the maximum from from our sample) but also the three intermediary knots. Observe that actually, those five values are just (empirical) quantiles quantile(myocarde$INSYS,(0:4)/4) 0% 25% 50% 75% 100% 8.70 15.80 21.40 27.15 54.00

If we plot the prediction, we get

v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,ylim=0:1,type="l",col="red",lwd=2) points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) abline(v=quantile(myocarde$INSYS,(0:4)/4),lty=2) If we get back on what was computed before the logit transformation, we clealy see ruptures are the different quantiles B = bs(x,degree=1,df=4) B = cbind(1,B) y = B%*%coefficients(reg) plot(x,y,type="l",col="red",lwd=2) abline(v=quantile(myocarde$INSYS,(0:4)/4),lty=2)

Note that if we do specify anything about knots (number or location), we get no knots…

reg = glm(PRONO~1+bs(INSYS,degree=2),data=myocarde,family=binomial) attr(reg$terms, "predvars")[[3]] bs(INSYS, degree = 2L, knots = numeric(0), Boundary.knots = c(8.7,54), intercept = FALSE) and if we look at the prediction u = seq(5,55,length=201) v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,ylim=0:1,type="l",col="red",lwd=2) points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) actually, it is the same as a quadratic regression (as expected actually) reg = glm(PRONO~1+poly(INSYS,degree=2),data=myocarde,family=binomial) v = predict(reg,newdata=data.frame(INSYS=u),type="response") plot(u,v,ylim=0:1,type="l",col="red",lwd=2) points(myocarde$INSYS,myocarde$PRONO,pch=19) ## Additive models Consider now the second dataset, with two variables. Consider here a model like $$\mathbb{P}[Y|X_1=x_1,X_2=x_2]=\frac{\exp[\eta(x_1,x_2)]}{1+\exp[\eta(x_1,x_2)]}$$ where $$\exp[\eta(x_1,x_2)]=\beta_0+\color{red}{s_1(x_1)}+\color{blue}{s_2(x_2)}$$ $$\color{red}{s_1(x_1)}=\beta_{1,0}x_1+\beta_{1,1}(x_1-s_{11})_++\beta_{1,2}(x_1-s_{12})_+$$ and $$\color{blue}{s_2(x_2)}=\beta_{2,0}x_2+\beta_{2,1}(x_2-s_{21})_++\beta_{2,2}(x_2-s_{22})_+$$ It might seem a little bit restrictive, but that’s actually the idea of additive models. reg = glm(y~bs(x1,degree=1,df=3)+bs(x2,degree=1,df=3),data=df,family=binomial(link = "logit")) u = seq(0,1,length=101) p = function(x,y) predict.glm(reg,newdata=data.frame(x1=x,x2=y),type="response") v = outer(u,u,p) image(u,u,v,xlab="Variable 1",ylab="Variable 2",col=clr10,breaks=(0:10)/10) points(df$x1,df$x2,pch=19,cex=1.5,col="white") points(df$x1,df$x2,pch=c(1,19)[1+(df$y=="1")],cex=1.5) contour(u,u,v,levels = .5,add=TRUE)

Now, if think about is, we’ve been able to get a “perfect” model, so, somehow, it seems no longer continuous…

persp(u,u,v,theta=20,phi=40,col="green"

Of course, it is… it is piecewise linear, with hyperplane, some being almost vertical.

And one can also consider piecewise quadratic functions

reg = glm(y~bs(x1,degree=2,df=3)+bs(x2,degree=2,df=3),data=df,family=binomial(link = "logit")) u = seq(0,1,length=101) p = function(x,y) predict.glm(reg,newdata=data.frame(x1=x,x2=y),type="response") v = outer(u,u,p) image(u,u,v,xlab="Variable 1",ylab="Variable 2",col=clr10,breaks=(0:10)/10) points(df$x1,df$x2,pch=19,cex=1.5,col="white") points(df$x1,df$x2,pch=c(1,19)[1+(df$y=="1")],cex=1.5) contour(u,u,v,levels = .5,add=TRUE) Funny thing, we now have two “perfect” models, with different areas for the white and the black dots… Don’t ask me how to choose on that one. In R, it is possible to use the mgcv package to run a gam regression. It is used for generalized additive models, but here, we have only one variable, so it is difficult to see the “additive” part, actually. And to be more specific, mgcv is using penalized quasi-likelihood from the nlme package (but we’ll get back on penalized routines later on). But maybe I should also mention another smoothing tool before, kernels (and maybe also $k$-nearest neighbors). To be continued # How long could it take to run a regression This afternoon, while I was discussing with Montserrat (aka @mguillen_estany) we were wondering how long it might take to run a regression model. More specifically, how long it might take if we use a Bayesian approach. My guess was that the time should probably be linear in $n$, the number of observations. But I thought I would be good to check. Let us generate a big dataset, with one million rows, > n=1e6 > X=runif(n) > Y=2+5*X+rnorm(n) > B=data.frame(X,Y) Consider as a benchmark the standard linear regression, > lm_freq = function(n){ + idx = sample(1:1e6,size=n) + reg = lm(Y~X,data=B[idx,]) + summary(reg) + } Here the regression is a subset of smaller size. We can do the same with a Bayesian approach, using stan, > stan_lm =" + data { + int N; + vector[N] x; + vector[N] y; + } + parameters { + real alpha; + real beta; + real tau; + } + transformed parameters { + real sigma; + sigma <- 1 / sqrt(tau); + } + model{ + y ~ normal(alpha + beta * x, sigma); + alpha ~ normal(0, 10); + beta ~ normal(0, 10); + tau ~ gamma(0.001, 0.001); + } + " Define then the model > library(rstan) > system.time( stanmodel <<- stan_model(model_code = stan_lm)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.043 0.000 0.043 We want to see how long it might take to run a regression, > lm_bayes = function(n){ + idx = sample(1:1e6,size=n) + fit = sampling(stanmodel, + data = list(N=n, + x=X[idx], + y=Y[idx]), + iter = 1000, warmup=200) + summary(fit) + } We use the following package to see how long it takes > library(microbenchmark) > time_lm = function(n){ + M = microbenchmark(lm_freq(n), + lm_bayes(n),times=50) + return(apply( matrix(M$time,nrow=2),1,mean))
+ }

We can now compare the time it took with ten, one hundred, on thousand, and ten thousand observations,

> vN = c(10,100,1000,10000)
> T = Vectorize(time_lm)(vN)

we can then plot it

> plot(vN,T[2,]/1e6,log="xy",col="red",type="b",
+      xlab="Number of Observations",ylab="Time")
> lines(vN,T[1,]/1e6,col="blue",type="b")

It looks like (if we forget about the very small sample) that the time it takes to run a regression is linear, with the two techniques (the frequentist and the Bayesian ones).

And actually, the same story olds for logistic regressions. Consider the following dataset

> n=1e6
> X=runif(n)
> S=-3+2*X+rnorm(n)
> Y=rbinom(n,size=1,prob=exp(S)/(1+exp(S)))
> B=data.frame(X,Y)

The frequentist version of the logistic regression is

> glm_freq = function(n){
+   idx = sample(1:1e6,size=n)
+   reg = glm(Y~X,data=B[idx,],family=binomial)
+   summary(reg)
+ }

and the Bayesian one, using stan,

> stan_glm = "
+ data {
+ int N;
+ vector[N] x;
+ int<lower=0,upper=1> y[N];
+ }
+ parameters {
+ real alpha;
+ real beta;
+ }
+ model {
+ alpha ~ normal(0, 10);
+ beta ~ normal(0, 10);
+ y ~ bernoulli_logit(alpha + beta * x);
+ }
+ "
> stanmodel = stan_model(model_code = stan_glm) )
> glm_bayes = function(n){
+   idx = sample(1:1e6,size=n)
+   fit = sampling(stanmodel,
+        data = list(N=n,
+        x = X[idx],
+        y = Y[idx]),
+        iter = 1000, warmup=200)
+   summary(fit)
+ }

Again, we can see how long it takes to run those regression models

> time_gl m= function(n){
+   M = microbenchmark(glm_freq(n),
+   glm_bayes(n),times=50)
+   return(apply( matrix(M\$time,nrow=2),1,mean))
+ }

# On linear models with no constant and R2

In econometrics course we always say to our students that “if you fit a linear model with no constant, then you might have trouble. For instance, you might have a negative R-squared”. So I tried to find databases on the internet such that, when we compute a linear regression, we actually obtain a negative R squared. I have generated hundreds to random databases that should exhibit such a property, in R. With no success. Perhaps to be more specific, I should explain what might happen if we do not include a constant in a linear model. Consider the following dataset, where points are on a straight line, with a negative slope, far from the origin, symmetric with respect to the first diagonal.

> x=1:3
> y=3:1
> plot(x,y)

Points are on a straight line, so it is actually possible to get a perfect linear model. But only if we integrate a constant in our model. This is related to the fact that the correlation between our two variates is -1,

> cor(x,y)
[1] -1

The least-square program is here

i.e. the estimate of the slope is

Numerically, we obtain

> sum(x*y)/sum(x^2)
[1] 0.7142857

which is the actual slope on the illustration above. If we compute the sum of squares of errors (as a function of the slope), we have here

> ssr=function(b){sum((y-b*x)^2)}
> SSR=Vectorize(ssr)
> B=seq(-1,3,by=.1)
> plot(B,SSR(B),ylim=c(0,ssr(3)),cex=.6,type="b")

so the value we have computed is actually the minimum of the sum of squares of errors. But note that the sum of squares always exceeds the total sum of squares in red on the graph above

> ssr(b)
[1] 6.857143
> sum((y-mean(y))^2)
[1] 2

Recall that the total “coefficient of variation“, denoted , is defined as

i.e.

> 1-ssr(b)/sum((y-mean(y))^2)
[1] -2.428571

which is negative. It is also sometimes defined as “the square of the sample correlation coefficient between the outcomes and their predicted values“. Here it would be related to

> cor(b*x,y)
[1] -1

so we would have a unit . So obviously, using the in a model without a constant would give odd results. But the weird part is that if we run that regression with R, we get

> summary(lm(y~0+x))

Call:
lm(formula = y ~ 0 + x)

Residuals:
1       2       3
2.2857  0.5714 -1.1429

Coefficients:
Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)
x   0.7143     0.4949   1.443    0.286

Residual standard error: 1.852 on 2 degrees of freedom
Multiple R-squared: 0.5102,	Adjusted R-squared: 0.2653
F-statistic: 2.083 on 1 and 2 DF,  p-value: 0.2857

Here, the estimation is correct. But the we obtain tells us that the model is not that bad… So if anyone knows what R computes, I’d be glad to know. The value given by R (thanks Vincent for asking me to look carefully at the R source code) is obtained using Pythagoras’s theorem to compute the total sum of square,

> sum((b*x)^2)/(sum((b*x)^2)+sum((y-b*x)^2))
[1] 0.5102041

So be careful, the might look good, but meaningless !