Tag Archives: chi-square

On Cochran Theorem (and Orthogonal Projections)

Cochran Theorem – from The distribution of quadratic forms in a normal system, with applications to the analysis of covariance published in 1934 – is probably the most import one in a regression course. It is an application of a nice result on quadratic forms of Gaussian vectors. More precisely, we can prove that if \boldsymbol{Y}\sim\mathcal{N}(\boldsymbol{0},\mathbb{I}_d) is a random vector with d \mathcal{N}(0,1) variable then (i) if A is a (squared) idempotent matrix \boldsymbol{Y}^\top A\boldsymbol{Y}\sim\chi^2_r where r is the rank of matrix A, and (ii) conversely, if \boldsymbol{Y}^\top A\boldsymbol{Y}\sim\chi^2_r then A is an idempotent matrix of rank r. And just in case, A is an idempotent matrix means that A^2=A, and a lot of results can be derived (for instance on the eigenvalues). The prof of that result (at least the (i) part) is nice: we diagonlize matrix A, so that A=P\Delta P^\top, with P orthonormal. Since A is an idempotent matrix observe thatA^2=P\Delta P^\top=P\Delta P^\top=P\Delta^2 P^\topwhere \Delta is some diagonal matrix such that \Delta^2=\Delta, so terms on the diagonal of \Delta are either 0 or 1‘s. And because the rank of A (and \Delta) is r then there should be r 1‘s and d-r 1‘s. Now write\boldsymbol{Y}^\top A\boldsymbol{Y}=\boldsymbol{Y}^\top P\Delta P^\top\boldsymbol{Y}=\boldsymbol{Z}^\top \Delta\boldsymbol{Z}where \boldsymbol{Z}=P^\top\boldsymbol{Y} that satisfies\boldsymbol{Z}\sim\mathcal{N}(\boldsymbol{0},PP^\top) i.e. \boldsymbol{Z}\sim\mathcal{N}(\boldsymbol{0},\mathbb{I}_d). Thus \boldsymbol{Z}^\top \Delta\boldsymbol{Z}=\sum_{i:\Delta_{i,i}-1}Z_i^2\sim\chi^2_rNice, isn’t it. And there is more (that will be strongly connected actually to Cochran theorem). Let A=A_1+\dots+A_k, then the two following statements are equivalent (i) A is idempotent and \text{rank}(A)=\text{rank}(A_1)+\dots+\text{rank}(A_k) (ii) A_i‘s are idempotents, A_iA_j=0 for all i\neq j.

Now, let us talk about projections. Let \boldsymbol{y} be a vector in \mathbb{R}^n. Its projection on the space \mathcal V(\boldsymbol{v}_1,\dots,\boldsymbol{v}_p) (generated by those p vectors) is the vector \hat{\boldsymbol{y}}=\boldsymbol{V} \hat{\boldsymbol{a}} that minimizes \|\boldsymbol{y} -\boldsymbol{V} \boldsymbol{a}\| (in \boldsymbol{a}). The solution is\hat{\boldsymbol{a}}=( \boldsymbol{V}^\top \boldsymbol{V})^{-1} \boldsymbol{V}^\top \boldsymbol{y} \text{ and } \hat{\boldsymbol{y}} = \boldsymbol{V} \hat{\boldsymbol{a}}
Matrix P=\boldsymbol{V} ( \boldsymbol{V}^\top \boldsymbol{V})^{-1} \boldsymbol{V}^\top is the orthogonal projection on \{\boldsymbol{v}_1,\dots,\boldsymbol{v}_p\} and \hat{\boldsymbol{y}} = P\boldsymbol{y}.

Now we can recall Cochran theorem. Let \boldsymbol{Y}\sim\mathcal{N}(\boldsymbol{\mu},\sigma^2\mathbb{I}_d) for some \sigma>0 and \boldsymbol{\mu}. Consider sub-vector orthogonal spaces F_1,\dots,F_m, with dimension d_i. Let P_{F_i} be the orthogonal projection matrix on F_i, then (i) vectors P_{F_1}\boldsymbol{X},\dots,P_{F_m}\boldsymbol{X} are independent, with respective distribution \mathcal{N}(P_{F_i}\boldsymbol{\mu},\sigma^2\mathbb{I}_{d_i}) and (ii) random variables \|P_{F_i}(\boldsymbol{X}-\boldsymbol{\mu})\|^2/\sigma^2 are independent and \chi^2_{d_i} distributed.

We can try to visualize those results. For instance, the orthogonal projection of a random vector has a Gaussian distribution. Consider a two-dimensional Gaussian vector

r = .7
s1 = 1
s2 = 1
Sig = matrix(c(s1^2,r*s1*s2,r*s1*s2,s2^2),2,2)
Y = rmnorm(n = 1000,mean=c(0,0),varcov = Sig)
vu = seq(-4,4,length=101)
vz = outer(vu,vu,function (x,y) dmnorm(cbind(x,y),
mean=c(0,0), varcov = Sig))

Consider now the projection of points \boldsymbol{y}=(y_1,y_2) on the straight linear with directional vector \overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{u}} with slope a (say a=2). To get the projected point \boldsymbol{x}=(x_1,x_2) recall that x_2=ay_1 and \overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{x},\boldsymbol{y}}\perp\overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{u}}. Hence, the following code will give us the orthogonal projections

p = function(a){


P = p(2)
for(i in 1:20) segments(Y[i,1],Y[i,2],P[i,1],P[i,2],lwd=4,col="red")

Now, if we look at the distribution of points on that line, we get… a Gaussian distribution, as expected,

z = sqrt(P[,1]^2+P[,2]^2)*c(-1,+1)[(P[,1]>0)*1+1]
vu = seq(-6,6,length=601)
vv = dnorm(vu,mean(z),sd(z))
hist(z,probability = TRUE,breaks = seq(-4,4,by=.25))

Or course, we can use the matrix representation to get the projection on \overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{u}}, or a normalized version of that vector actually

U = c(1,a)/sqrt(a^2+1)
[1] 0.4472136 0.8944272
matP = U %*% solve(t(U) %*% U) %*% t(U)
matP %*% Y[1,]
[1,] -0.1120555
[2,] -0.2241110
x0 y0
-0.1120555 -0.2241110

(which is consistent with our manual computation). Now, in Cochran theorem, we start with independent random variables,

Y = rmnorm(n = 1000,mean=c(0,0),varcov = diag(c(1,1)))

Then we consider the projection on \overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{u}} and \overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{v}}=\overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{u}}^\perp

U = c(1,a)/sqrt(a^2+1)
matP1 = U %*% solve(t(U) %*% U) %*% t(U)
P1 = Y %*% matP1
z1 = sqrt(P1[,1]^2+P1[,2]^2)*c(-1,+1)[(P1[,1]>0)*1+1]
V = c(a,-1)/sqrt(a^2+1)
matP2 = V %*% solve(t(V) %*% V) %*% t(V)
P2 = Y %*% matP2
z2 = sqrt(P2[,1]^2+P2[,2]^2)*c(-1,+1)[(P2[,1]>0)*1+1]

We can plot those two projections


and observe that the two are indeed, independent Gaussian variables. And (of course) there squared norms are \chi^2_{1} distributed.

Regression tree using Gini’s index

In order to illustrate the construction of regression tree (using the CART methodology), consider the following simulated dataset,

> set.seed(1)
> n=200
> X1=runif(n)
> X2=runif(n)
> P=.8*(X1<.3)*(X2<.5)+
+   .2*(X1<.3)*(X2>.5)+
+   .8*(X1>.3)*(X1<.85)*(X2<.3)+
+   .2*(X1>.3)*(X1<.85)*(X2>.3)+
+   .8*(X1>.85)*(X2<.7)+
+   .2*(X1>.85)*(X2>.7) 
> Y=rbinom(n,size=1,P)  
> B=data.frame(Y,X1,X2)

with one dichotomos varible (the variable of interest, ), and two continuous ones (the explanatory ones  and ).

> tail(B)
    Y        X1        X2
195 0 0.2832325 0.1548510
196 0 0.5905732 0.3483021
197 0 0.1103606 0.6598210
198 0 0.8405070 0.3117724
199 0 0.3179637 0.3515734
200 1 0.7828513 0.1478457

The theoretical partition is the following

Here, the sample can be plotted below (be careful, the first variate is on the y-axis above, and the x-axis below) with blue dots when  equals one, and red dots when  is null,

> plot(X1,X2,col="white")
> points(X1[Y=="1"],X2[Y=="1"],col="blue",pch=19)
> points(X1[Y=="0"],X2[Y=="0"],col="red",pch=19)

In order to construct the tree, we need a partition critera. The most standard one is probably Gini’s index, which can be writen, when ‘s are splited in two classes, denoted here 

L'image “https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/arbre-comp-04.png” ne peut être affichée car elle contient des erreurs.

or when ‘s are splited in three classes, denoted 

etc. Here,  are just counts of observations that belong to partition  such that  takes value . But it is possible to consider other criteria, such as the chi-square distance,


where, classically

when we consider two classes (one knot) or, in the case of three classes (two knots)

Here again, the idea is to maximize that distance: the idea is to discriminate, so we want samples as not independent as possible. To compute Gini’s index consider

> GINI=function(y,i){
+ T=table(y,i)
+ nx=apply(T,2,sum)
+ pxy=T/matrix(rep(nx,each=2),2,ncol(T))
+ vxy=pxy*(1-pxy)
+ zx=apply(vxy,2,sum)
+ n=sum(T)
+ -sum(nx/n*zx)
+ }

We simply construct the contingency table, and then, compute the quantity given above. Assume, first, that there is only one explanatory variable. We split the sample in two, with all possible spliting values , i.e.

Then, we compute Gini’s index, for all those values. The knot is the value that maximizes Gini’s index. Once we have our first knot, we keep it (call it, from now on ). And we reiterate, by seeking the best second choice: given one knot, consider the value that splits the sample in three, and give the highest Gini’s index, Thus, we consider either the following partition

or this one

I.e. we cut either below, or above the previous knot. And we iterate. The code can be something like that,

> X=X2
> u=(sort(X)[2:n]+sort(X)[1:(n-1)])/2
> knot=NULL
> for(s in 1:4){
+ vgini=rep(NA,length(u))
+ for(i in 1:length(u)){
+ kn=c(knot,u[i])
+ F=function(x){sum(x<=kn)}
+ I=Vectorize(F)(X)
+ vgini[i]=GINI(Y,I)
+ }
+ plot(u,vgini)
+ k=which.max(vgini)
+ cat("knot",k,u[k],"\n")
+ knot=c(knot,u[k])
+ u=u[-k]
+ }
knot 69 0.3025479 
knot 133 0.5846202 
knot 72 0.3148172 
knot 111 0.4811517

At the first step, the value of Gini’s index was the following,

which was maximal around 0.3. Then, this value is considered as fixed. And we try to construct a partition in three parts (spliting either below or above 0.3). We get the following plot for Gini’s index (as a function of this second knot)

 which is maximum when the split the sample around 0.6 (which becomes our second knot). Etc. Now, let us compare our code with the standard R function,

> tree(Y~X2,method="gini")
node), split, n, deviance, yval
      * denotes terminal node

 1) root 200 49.8800 0.4750  
   2) X2 < 0.302548 69 12.8100 0.7536 *
   3) X2 > 0.302548 131 28.8900 0.3282  
     6) X2 < 0.58462 65 16.1500 0.4615  
      12) X2 < 0.324591 7  0.8571 0.1429 *
      13) X2 > 0.324591 58 14.5000 0.5000 *
     7) X2 > 0.58462 66 10.4400 0.1970 *

We do obtain similar knots: the first one is 0.302 and the second one 0.584. So, constructing tree is not that difficult…

Now, what if we consider our two explanatory variables? The story remains the same, except that the partition is now a bit more complex to write. To find the first knot, we consider all values on the two components, and again, keep the one that maximizes Gini’s index,

> n=nrow(B)
> u1=(sort(X1)[2:n]+sort(X1)[1:(n-1)])/2
> u2=(sort(X2)[2:n]+sort(X2)[1:(n-1)])/2
> gini=matrix(NA,nrow(B)-1,2)
> for(i in 1:length(u1)){
+ I=(X1<u1[i])
+ gini[i,1]=GINI(Y,I)
+ I=(X2<u2[i])
+ gini[i,2]=GINI(Y,I)
+ }
> mg=max(gini)
> i=1+sum(mg==max(gini[,2]))
> par(mfrow = c(1, 2))
> plot(u1,gini[,1],ylim=range(gini),col="green",type="b",xlab="X1",ylab="Gini index")
> abline(h=mg,lty=2,col="red")
> if(i==1){points(u1[which.max(gini[,1])],mg,pch=19,col="red")
+          segments(u1[which.max(gini[,1])],mg,u1[which.max(gini[,1])],-100000)}
> plot(u2,gini[,2],ylim=range(gini),col="green",type="b",xlab="X2",ylab="Gini index")
> abline(h=mg,lty=2,col="red")
> if(i==2){points(u2[which.max(gini[,2])],mg,pch=19,col="red")
+          segments(u2[which.max(gini[,2])],mg,u2[which.max(gini[,2])],-100000)}
> u2[which.max(gini[,2])]
[1] 0.3025479

The graphs are the following: either we split on the first component (and we obtain the partition on the right, below),

or we split on the second one (and we get the following partition),

Here, it is optimal to split on the second variate, first. And actually, we get back to the one-dimensional case discussed previously: as expected, it is optimal to split around 0.3. This is confirmed with the code below,

> library(tree)
> arbre=tree(Y~X1+X2,data=B,method="gini")
> arbre$frame[1:4,]
     var   n       dev      yval splits.cutleft splits.cutright
1     X2 200 49.875000 0.4750000      <0.302548       >0.302548
2     X1  69 12.811594 0.7536232      <0.800113       >0.800113
4 <leaf>  57  8.877193 0.8070175                               
5 <leaf>  12  3.000000 0.5000000

For the second knot, four cases should be considered: spliting on the second variable (again), either above, or below the previous knot (see below on the left) or spliting on the first one. Then whe have wither a partition below or above the previous knot (see below on the right),

Etc. To visualize the tree, the code is the following

> plot(arbre)
> text(arbre)
> partition.tree(arbre)


Note that we can also visualize the partition. Nice, isn’t it?

To go further, the book Classification and Regression Trees by Leo Breiman (and co-authors) is awesome. Note that there are also interesting sections in the bible Elements of Statistical Learning: Data Mining, Inference, and Prediction by Trevor Hastie, Robert Tibshirani and Jerome Friedman (which can be downloaded from http://www.stanford.edu/~hastie/…)

Margin of error, and comparing proportions in the same sample

Irecently tried to answer a simple question, asked by @adelaigue. Actually, I thought that the answer would be obvious… but it is a little bit more compexe than what I thought. In a recent survey about elections in Brazil, it was mentionned in a French newspapper that “Mme Rousseff, 62 ans, de 46,8% des intentions de vote et José Serra, 68 ans, de 42,7%” (i.e. proportions obtained from the survey). It is also mentioned that “la marge d’erreur du sondage est de 2,2% ” i.e. the margin of error is 2.2%, which means (for the journalist) that there is a “grande probabilité que les 2 candidats soient à égalité” (there is a “large probability” to have equal proportions).
Usually, in sampling theory, we look at the margin of error of a single proportion. The idea is that the variance of https://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?%20\widehat{p}, obtained from a sample of size https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial15.png is


thus, the standard error is


The standard 95% confidence interval, derived from a Gaussian approximation of the binomial distribution is


The largest value is obtained when p is 1/2, and then we have a worst case confidence interval (an upper bound) which is


So with a margin of error https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/m205.png means that https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/m206.png. Hence, with a 5% margin of error, it means that n=400. While 2.2% means that n=2000:
> 1/.022^2
[1] 2066.116
Classically, we compare proportions between two samples: surveys at two different dates, surveys in different regions, surveys paid by two different newpapers, etc. But here, we wish to compare proportions within the same sample. This has been consider in an “old” paper published in 1993 in the American Statistician,

It contains nice figures to illustrate the difference between the standard approach,

and the one we would like to study here.

This point is mentioned in the book by Kish, survey sampling (thanks Benoit for the reference),

Let https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial05.png and https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial06.png denote empirical frequencies we have obtained from the sample, based on https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial15.png observations. Then since




we have


Thus, a natural margin of error on the difference between the two proportion is here


which is here 4 points
> n=2000
> p1=46.8/100
> p2=42.7/100
> 1.96*sqrt((p1+p2)-(p1-p2)^2)/sqrt(n)
[1] 0.04142327
Which is exactly the difference we have here ! Hence, the probability of reaching such a value is quite small (2%)
> s=sqrt(p1*(1-p1)/n+p2*(1-p2)/n+2*p1*p2/n)
> (p1-p2)/s
[1] 1.939972
> 1-pnorm(p1-p2,mean=0,sd=sqrt((p1+p2)-(p1-p2)^2)/sqrt(n))
[1] 0.02619152

Actually, we can compare the three margin of errors we have so far,

  • the upper bound
  • the “average one”


  • the more accurate one we just obtained,

where https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/m214.png.
> p=seq(0,.5,by=.01)
> ic1=rep(1.96/sqrt(4*n),length(p))
> ic2=1.96*sqrt(p*(1-p))/sqrt(n)
> delta=.01
> ic31=1.96*sqrt(2*p-delta^2)/sqrt(n)
> delta=.2
> ic32=1.96*sqrt(2*p-delta^2)/sqrt(n)
> plot(p,ic32,type=”l”,col=”blue”)
> lines(p,ic31,col=”red”)
> lines(p,ic2)
> lines(p,ic1,lty=2)
So on the graph below, the dotted line is the standard upper bound, the plain line in black being a more accurate one when the probability is https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial19.png (the x-axis). The red line is the true margin of error with a large difference between candidates (20 points) and the blue line with a small difference (1 point).

Remark: an alternative is to consider a chi-square test, comparering two multinomial distributions, with probabilities https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/m215.png and https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/m216.png where https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial19.png is the average proportion, i.e. 44.75%. Then


i.e.  https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial22.png=3.71
> p=(p1+p2)/2
> (x2=n*((p1-p)^2/p+(p2-p)^2/p))
[1] 3.756425
> 1-pchisq(x2,df=1)
[1] 0.05260495
Under the null hypothesis, https://perso.univ-rennes1.fr/arthur.charpentier/latex/multinomial22.png should have a chi-square distribution, with one degree of freedom (since the average is fixed here). Here the probability to reach that level is around 5% (which can be compared with the 2% we add before).

So finally, I would think that here, stating that there is a “large probability” is not correct…