Multinomial Logit as an Iterated Logit Regression

For the second section of the course at ENSAE, yesterday, we’ve seen how to run a multinomial logistic regression model. It is simply an extension of the binomial logistic regression. But actually, it is also possible to consider iterative binomial regressions.

Consider here a response variable Y with a multinomial distribution (3 factors to have something more general than the binomial), taking values \{A,B,C\}, with respective probabilities \mathbf{p}=(p_A,p_B,p_C). Here is a code to generate some multinomial variables

msample=function(A,B,C){
Y=rep(NA,B)
for(i in 1:B){Y[i]=sample(A,size=1,prob=C[i,])}
return(Y)
}

and here is a code to generate a dataset with n rows,

generate3=function(n,x,pb=c(-2,0)){
set.seed(x)
X1=runif(n)
X2=runif(n)
X3=runif(n)
s1=pb[1]+X1+X2
s2=pb[2]-X1+X2
P1=exp(s1)/(1+exp(s1)+exp(s2))
P2=exp(s2)/(1+exp(s1)+exp(s2))
Y=msample(0:2,n,cbind(1-P1-P2,P1,P2))
df=data.frame(Y=Y,X1=X1,X2=X2,X3=X3)
return(df)
}

Let us generate a training dataset and a validation one

pb=c(.31,.42)
DF1=generate3(1000,1,pb=pb)
DF2=generate3(500,2,pb=pb)

With a multivariate logistic regression
\mathbb{P}[Y=A|\mathbf{x}]=\frac{\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\alpha}]}{1+\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\alpha}]+\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\beta}]}
\mathbb{P}[Y=B|\mathbf{x}]=\frac{\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\beta}]}{1+\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\alpha}]+\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\beta}]}
\mathbb{P}[Y=B|\mathbf{x}]=\frac{1}{1+\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\alpha}]+\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{\beta}]}

For convenience, consider the most popular factor in our training dataset

modalite=names(sort(table(DF1$Y),decreasing = TRUE))

Consider a regression model on the simulated dataset (with several covariates), let us estimate it, and let us get predictions.

library(nnet)
reg=multinom(as.factor(Y) ~ ., data = DF1)
mp1=predict (reg, DF1, "probs")
mp2=predict (reg, DF2, "probs")

An alternative can be the following.
consider a first regression model on the Bernoulli variable Y_A=\mathbf{1}(Y=A). Actually, we will consider the most important factor, but for convenience, assume that it is A.
\mathbb{P}[Y_A=A|\mathbf{x}]=\frac{\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{a}]}{1+\exp[\mathbf{x}^{\text{T}}\mathbf{a}]}
On our dataset, estimate that model, and get predictions. In the case where Y\neq A, define another Bernoulli variable Y_B=\mathbf{1}(Y=B|Y\neq A). We can estimate that model and derive two probabilities, \mathbb{P}(Y=B|Y\neq A) and \mathbb{P}(Y=C|Y\neq A) (the sum of the two being equal to 1). Based on those two models, it is possible to compute the three probabilities we are looking for. \mathbb{P}[Y=A] is obtained from the first model, and we can derive the other two from \mathbb{P}[Y=B|Y\neq A]\cdot\mathbb{P}[Y\neq A] and \mathbb{P}[Y=C|Y\neq A]\cdot\mathbb{P}[Y\neq A].

reg1=glm((Y==modalite[1])~.,data=DF1,family=binomial)
reg2=glm((Y==modalite[2])~.,data=DF1[-which(DF1$Y==modalite[1]),],family=binomial)
p11=predict (reg1, newdata=DF1, type="response")
p12=predict (reg2, newdata=DF1, type="response")
p21=predict (reg1, newdata=DF2, type="response")
p22=predict (reg2, newdata=DF2, type="response")
mmp1=cbind(p11,(1-p11)*p12,(1-p11)*(1-p12))
mmp2=cbind(p21,(1-p21)*p22,(1-p21)*(1-p22))
colnames(mmp1)=colnames(mmp2)=modalite

Let us compare the predicted probabilites, on the same dataset (here the training dataset)

> mmp1[1:9,c("0","1","2")]
0 1 2
1 0.19728737 0.4991805 0.3035321
2 0.17244580 0.5648537 0.2627005
3 0.19291753 0.5971058 0.2099767
4 0.09087176 0.7787304 0.1303978
5 0.23400225 0.4083022 0.3576955
6 0.18063647 0.6637352 0.1556283
7 0.13188881 0.7402710 0.1278401
8 0.13776970 0.6524959 0.2097344
9 0.12325864 0.6790336 0.1977078
> mp1[1:9,c("0","1","2")]
0 1 2
1 0.19691036 0.5022692 0.3008205
2 0.17123189 0.5680647 0.2607034
3 0.19293066 0.5984402 0.2086291
4 0.08821851 0.7813318 0.1304497
5 0.23470739 0.4109990 0.3542936
6 0.18249687 0.6602168 0.1572863
7 0.13128711 0.7400898 0.1286231
8 0.13525341 0.6553618 0.2093848
9 0.12090016 0.6815915 0.1975084

The two are very close. So yes, it is possible to see the multinomial regression as some sequential binomial regressions.


OpenEdition suggests that you cite this post as follows:
Arthur Charpentier (November 8, 2017). Multinomial Logit as an Iterated Logit Regression. Freakonometrics. Retrieved July 18, 2024 from https://doi.org/10.58079/ov8q


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